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New Cisco 200-125 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 7 - Question 14)
Question No: 7
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s
-> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts-per-subnet) so /27 is the best choice.
Question No: 8
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.
Using the show running-config command we see that R6 has been incorrectly configured with the same router ID as R3 under the router OSPF process.
Question No: 9
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190
Itu2019s a u201crouter-on-a-sticku201d configuration. Which means each host in the VLAN must corresponds with the VLAN configured on the sub-interfaces.
VLAN 10 is configured on fa0/0.10 and VLAN 20 on fa0/0.20. So each hosts in VLAN 10 must use fa0/0.10 IP address as their default gateway, each hosts must also be in the same subnet as fa0/0.10 IP u2013 same with hosts in VLAN 20.
So find out the usable IP addresses on each sub-interfaces u2013 for 192.168.1.78 /27: 192.168.1.65 u2013 .94 and for 192.168.1.130 /26: 192.168.1.128 u2013 .190.
Host A (using port 6 u2013 VLAN 10) must use IP 192.168.1.79, default gateway 192.168.1.78. Host B (using port 9 u2013 VLAN 20) must use IP 192.168.1.190, default gateway 192.168.1.130.
Question No: 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.
Question No: 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
From the output we can see that there is a problem with the Serial 0/0 interface. It is enabled, but the line protocol is down. There could be a result of mismatched encapsulation or the interface not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
Question No: 12
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN).
+ A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group.
+ You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN.
+ When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two.
+ If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses.
+ The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
Topic 11, Infrastructure Management
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial
links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
Study the following output taken on R1: R1# Ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1 Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds: Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) Why are the pings failing?
A. The network statement is missing on R5.
B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.
C. The network statement is missing on R1.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.
R5 does not have a route to the 10.1.1.1 network, which is the loopback0 IP address of R1. When looking at the EIGRP configuration on R1, we see that the 10.1.1.1 network
statement is missing on R1.
Question No: 13
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0u2019s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.
Question No: 14
What are the benefits of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network,Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
NetFlow traditionally enables several key customer applications including:
+ Network Monitoring u2013 NetFlow data enables extensive near real time network monitoring capabilities. Flow-based analysis techniques may be utilized to visualize traffic patterns associated with individual routers and switches as well as on a network-wide basis (providing aggregate traffic or application based views) to provide proactive problem detection, efficient troubleshooting, and rapid problem resolution.
+ Application Monitoring and Profiling u2013 NetFlow data enables network managers to gain a detailed, time-based, view of application usage over the network. This information is used to plan, understand new services, and allocate network and application resources (e.g. Web server sizing and VoIP deployment) to responsively meet customer demands.
+ User Monitoring and Profiling u2013 NetFlow data enables network engineers to gain detailed understanding of customer/user utilization of network and application resources. This information may then be utilized to efficiently plan and allocate access, backbone and
application resources as well as to detect and resolve potential security and policy violations.
+ Network Planning u2013 NetFlow can be used to capture data over a long period of time producing the opportunity to track and anticipate network growth and plan upgrades to increase the number of routing devices, ports, or higher- bandwidth interfaces. NetFlow services data optimizes network planning including peering, backbone upgrade planning, and routing policy planning. NetFlow helps to minimize the total cost of network operations while maximizing network performance, capacity, and reliability. NetFlow detects unwanted WAN traffic, validates bandwidth and Quality of Service (QOS) and allows the analysis of new network applications. NetFlow will give you valuable information to reduce the cost of operating your network.
+ Security Analysis u2013 NetFlow identifies and classifies DDOS attacks, viruses and worms in real-time. Changes in network behavior indicate anomalies that are clearly demonstrated in NetFlow data. The data is also a valuable forensic tool to understand and replay the history of security incidents.
+ Accounting/Billing u2013 NetFlow data provides fine-grained metering (e.g. flow data includes details such as IP addresses, packet and byte counts, timestamps, type-of-service and application ports, etc.) for highly flexible and detailed resource utilization accounting. Service providers may utilize the information for billing based on time-of-day, bandwidth usage, application usage, quality of service, etc. Enterprise customers may utilize the information for departmental charge-back or cost allocation for resource utilization.
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