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New Cisco 200-125 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 5 - Question 14)

Q1. Refer to the exhibit.

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.

B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.

C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer: B

Explanation:

To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA numbers


Q2. What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A. optional IPsec

B. autoconfiguration

C. no broadcasts

D. complicated header

E. plug-and-play

F. checksums

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6 network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices. This is accomplished by autoconfiguration.

IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address 224.0.0.1.


Q3. Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning

B. listening

C. discarding

D. forwarding

Answer: C

Explanation:

PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.


Q4. Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

Answer: B

Explanation:

IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a trunk. The u201cswitchport mode trunku201d command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not be listed over that trunk interface.


Q5. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A. Router# service password-encryption

B. Router(config)# password-encryption

C. Router(config)# service password-encryption

D. Router# password-encryption

Answer: C

Explanation:

Command

The u201cservice password-encryptionu201d command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router so they cannot be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.

It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is all. This is configured in global configuration mode.


Q6. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.

C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.

D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.

E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.

F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Answer: E

Explanation:

This static route will allow for communication to the Manchester workstations and it is better to use this more specific route than a default route as traffic destined to the Internet will then not go out the London Internet connection.


Q7. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. It supports VLSM.

B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.

OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.


Q8. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.

B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Answer: E

Explanation:

The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that can be transmitted out the interface.


Q9. Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?

A. trunk mode mismatches

B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

C. native VLAN mismatches

D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Answer: C

Explanation:

Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.


Q10. What are the alert messages generated by SNMP agents called?

A. TRAP

B. INFORM

C. GET

D. SET

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

A TRAP is a SNMP message sent from one application to another (which is typically on a remote host). Their purpose is merely to notify the other application that something has happened, has been noticed, etc. The big problem with TRAPs is that theyu2019re unacknowledged so you donu2019t actually know if the remote application received your oh-so- important message to it. SNMPv2 PDUs fixed this by introducing the notion of an INFORM, which is nothing more than an acknowledged TRAP.


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