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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
[Rebirth] 400-101 ccie routing and switching
Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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2016 Jun 400-101 Study Guide Questions:
Q331. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
B. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
C. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
D. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
E. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system.
Prior to January 2009, BGP autonomous system (AS) numbers that were allocated to companies were 2-octet numbers in the range from 1 to 65535 as described in RFC 4271, A Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4). Due to increased demand for AS numbers, the Internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) started to allocate four-octet AS numbers in the range from 65536 to 4294967295. RFC 5396, Textual Representation of Autonomous System (AS) Numbers, documents three methods of representing AS numbers. Cisco has implemented the following two methods:
. Asplain — Decimal value notation where both 2-byte and 4-byte AS numbers are represented by their decimal value. For example, 65526 is a 2-byte AS number and 234567 is a 4-byte AS number.
. Asdot — Autonomous system dot notation where 2-byte AS numbers are represented by their decimal value and 4-byte AS numbers are represented by a dot notation. For example, 65526 is a 2-byte AS number and 1.169031 is a 4-byte AS number (this is dot notation for the 234567 decimal number).
Q332. Which two statements about SNMP traps are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are sent by an agent after a specified event.
B. They are sent when solicited after a specified event.
C. They are equivalent to a community string.
D. They provide solicited data to the manager.
E. They are sent by a management station to an agent.
F. Vendor-specific traps can be configured.
The SNMP agent contains MIB variables whose values the SNMP manager can request or change. A manager can get a value from an agent or store a value into the agent. The agent gathers data from the MIB, the repository for information about device parameters and network data. The agent can also respond to a manager's requests to get or set data. An agent can send unsolicited traps to the manager. Traps are messages alerting the SNMP manager to a condition on the network. Traps can mean improper user authentication, restarts, link status (up or down), MAC address tracking, closing of a TCP connection, loss of connection to a neighbor, or other significant events.
Q333. Which statement about BGP and diverse path advertisement is true?
A. The BGP best-path selection must be disabled.
B. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed to always ignore the IGP metric.
C. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed so that two BGP paths can be flagged as best in the BGP table.
D. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has not been changed.
E. The BGP best-path selection is disabled for BGP routes for which the feature is enabled.
The BGP Diverse Path Using a Diverse-Path Route Reflector feature allows BGP to distribute an alternative path other than the best path between BGP speakers when route reflectors are deployed. This additional path is added to the best-path, and the best path algorithm still remains unchanged.
Regenerate testking 400-101:
Q334. DRAG DROP
Drag each IS-IS command on the left to its effect on the right.
Q335. Which two options are signaling protocols that are used in MPLS? (Choose two.)
* Signaling is the means by which LSRs all along the path know that they are a part of a given LSP. It is a signaling function by which the LSR knows that the internal transit path for the LSP depicted goes from Interface 2 to Interface 4.
* Label distribution is the means by which an LSR tells an upstream LSR what label value to use for a particular LSP.
There are four protocols that can perform the label distribution function:
* Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)
* Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering Extensions (RSVP-TE)
* Constraint-Based Routed LDP (CR-LDP)
* Multiprotocol BGP
LDP and RSVP-TE are the two most commonly used label distribution protocols
Q336. Which IPv6 tunneling type establishes a permanent link between IPv6 domains over IPv4?
A. IPv4-compatible tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. 6to4 tunneling
D. manual tunneling
A manually configured tunnel is equivalent to a permanent link between two IPv6 domains over an IPv4 backbone. The primary use is for stable connections that require regular secure communication between two edge routers or between an end system and an edge router, or for connection to remote IPv6 networks.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/i p6-tunnel.html
Accurate lpi 101-400:
Q337. What happens when an interface is configured as passive in OSPF?
A. No OSPF neighbor ship is formed on the interface.
B. An OSPF neighbor ship is formed with the DR, but not with the BDR.
C. The subnet configured on the interface is not advertised to any other neighbor.
D. OSPF hello messages are sent as unicast instead of multicast.
Q338. On which three options can Cisco PfR base its traffic routing? (Choose three.)
A. Time of day
B. An access list with permit or deny statements
C. Load-balancing requirements
D. Network performance
E. User-defined link capacity thresholds
F. Router IOS version
Key Advantages of using PfR for Load balancing:
. Utilization based load-balancing: PfR takes real-time link utilization into account when load balancing the links. This will ensure that a link will not go beyond a certain percentage of its maximum capacity (75% by default).
. Application Performance based Load Balancing: PfR does not randomly forward traffic through one link or another. It takes application performance requirements into consideration and then forwards the traffic through a link which meets the performance policy requirements. PfR also load balances the link at the same time.
. Bi-directional Solution: PfR is a bi-directional load balancing solution which influences outbound as well as in-bound traffic.
. Consolidated Centralized View: PfR offers consolidated and centralized view of the state of all external links in the network. At any given time, the network administrator can see the current link utilization (in kbps and percentage of its capacity), maximum link threshold, and the policies applied to the links in the network.
Q339. Refer to the exhibit.
The two standalone chassis are unable to convert into a VSS. What can you do to correct the problem?
A. Set a different port channel number on each chassis.
B. Set a different virtual domain ID on each chassis.
C. Set the redundancy mode to rpr on both chassis.
D. Add two ports to the port channel group.
Q340. Which statement about OTV is true?
A. The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled.
B. OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode.
C. The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured.
D. The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible.
OTV has the following configuration guidelines and limitations:
. If the same device serves as the default gateway in a VLAN interface and the OTV edge device for the VLANs being extended, configure OTV on a device (VDC or switch) that is separate from the VLAN interfaces (SVIs).
. When possible, we recommend that you use a separate nondefault VDC for OTV to allow for better manageability and maintenance.
. An overlay interface will only be in an up state if the overlay interface configuration is complete and enabled (no shutdown). The join interface has to be in an up state.
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