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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
[High quality] 400-101 Cisco exam prep 331-340 (Mar 2017)
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2017 Mar 400-101 real exam
Q331. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It sets the data export destination to 184.108.40.206 on UDP port 49152.
B. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data.
D. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0.
E. It sets the data export destination to 220.127.116.11 on TCP port 49152.
The “ip flow-export destination 18.104.22.168 49152” command specifies that the data export destination server is 22.214.171.124 using UDP port 49152.
The “ip route-cache flow” command under the fastethernet 0/0 interface enable netflow switching on that interface.
Q332. For which three routing protocols can Cisco PfR provide direct route control? (Choose three.)
E. static routing
Q. Can you elaborate more on the Parent Route and why it's so important to PfR?
A. Yes. For any route that PfR modifies or controls (BGP, Static, PIRO, EIGRP, PBR), having a Parent prefix in the routing table eliminates the possibility of a routing loop occurring. This is naturally a good thing to prevent in routed networks.
Q333. Which TCP mechanism prevents the sender from sending data too quickly for the receiver to process?
A. Congestion control
B. Error detection
C. Selective acknowledgement
D. Flow control
In data communications, flow control is the process of managing the rate of data transmission between two nodes to prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver. It provides a mechanism for the receiver to control the transmission speed, so that the receiving node is not overwhelmed with data from transmitting node.
Q334. Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)
A. fast retransmission
B. fast recovery
C. fast start
D. low-latency queuing
E. IP service level agreements
F. congestion-avoidance algorithm
IP SLA uses active traffic monitoring, which generates traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner to measure network performance. IP SLA sends data across the network to measure performance between multiple network locations or across multiple network paths. It simulates network data and IP services, and collects network performance information in real time. This information is collected:
One-way latency, jitter (interpacket delay variance)
Network resource availability
LLQ uses the priority command. The priority command allows you to set up classes based on a variety of criteria (not just User Datagram Ports (UDP) ports) and assign priority to them, and is available for use on serial interfaces and ATM permanent virtual circuits (PVCs). A similar command, the ip rtp priority command, allows you to stipulate priority flows based only on UDP port numbers. Note: All the other answer choices can be used to improve TCP performance, but not UDP.
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-2/system_monitoring/configuration/guide/b_sysmon_cg42xr12k/b_sysmon_cg42xr12k_chapter_011.html http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fsllq26.html
Q335. Which two statements about Inverse ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses the same operation code as ARP.
B. It uses the same packet format as ARP.
C. It uses ARP stuffing.
D. It supports static mapping.
E. It translates Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses.
F. It translates Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses.
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP or InARP) is used to obtain Network Layer addresses (for example, IP addresses) of other nodes from Data Link Layer (Layer 2) addresses. It is primarily used in Frame Relay (DLCI) and ATM networks, in which Layer 2 addresses of virtual circuits are sometimes obtained from Layer 2 signaling, and the corresponding Layer 3 addresses must be available before those virtual circuits can be used.
Since ARP translates Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses, InARP may be described as its inverse. In addition, InARP is implemented as a protocol extension to ARP: it uses the same packet format as ARP, but different operation codes.
Avant-garde 400-101 test questions:
Q336. Which two statements about OSPF default route injection are true? (Choose two.)
A. The ABR requires manual configuration to send a default route into an NSSA area.
B. The ABR injects a default route into a Totally Stub Area.
C. In a stub area, the ASBR generates a summary LSA with link-state ID 0.0.0.0.
D. If the default route is missing from the routing table, the ASBR can use the default-information originate command to advertise the default into the OSPF domain.
E. By default, OSPF normal areas will generate default routes into the routing domain if a default route exists.
Q337. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?
A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.
B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.
C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.
D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.
To disable sequence numbers, use the no service sequence-numbers global configuration command.
This example shows part of a logging display with sequence numbers enableD. 000019: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36)
In this example we see the absence of sequence numbers on the log messages.
Not A. In this example there are no time stamps or uptimes shown in the logs.
Not B. The default buffer size is 4096 bytes.
Not C. The logging level in this example is informational (level 6), which will display levels 0-6 in the logs. Warnings are level 4.
Q338. Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
B. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
C. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
D. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
E. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
F. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
Q339. Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling.
B. OTP maintains the LISP control plane.
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors.
D. LISP learns the next hop.
Q340. What is a reason to use DHCPv6 on a network that uses SLAAC?
A. To get a record of the IPs that are used by the clients
B. To push DNS and other information to the clients
C. No reason, because there is no need for DHCPv6 when using SLAAC
D. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateful mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients
E. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateless mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients
F. Because DHCPv6 is required to use first-hop security features on the switches
SLAAC is by far the easiest way to configure IPv6 addresses, simply because you don’t have to configure any IPv6 address. With SLAAC, a host uses the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) to determine its IP address and default routers. Using SLAAC, a host requests and listens for Router Advertisements (RA) messages, and then taking the prefix that is advertised to form a unique address that can be used on the network. For this to work, the prefix that is advertised must advertise a prefix length of 64 bits (i.e., /64). But the most significant of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) is it provided no mechanism for configuring DNS resolver information.Therefore SLACC can be used along with DHCPv6 (Stateless) to push DNS and other information to the clients.
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