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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
The Up to date Guide To 400-101 questions pool Mar 2017
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2017 Mar 400-101 exam answers
Q451. Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the IP MTU of tunnel 0?
In the case of the GRE tunnel interface, the IP maximum transmission unit (MTU) is 24 bytes less than the IP MTU of the real outgoing interface. For an Ethernet outgoing interface that means the IP MTU on the tunnel interface would be 1500 minus 24, or 1476 bytes.
Reference: A spoke site that is connected to Router-A cannot reach a spoke site that is connected to Router-B, but both spoke sites can reach the hub. What is the likely cause of this issue http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/generic-routing-encapsulation-gre/13725-56.html
Q452. Under Cisco IOS Software, which two features are supported in RADIUS Change of Authorization requests? (Choose two.)
A. session identification
B. session reauthentication
C. session termination
D. host termination
CoA requests, as described in RFC 5176, are used in a pushed model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination. The model comprises one request (CoA-Request) and two possible response codes.
Q453. Which two statements about the function of a PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
B. It registers directly connected sources to the PIM rendezvous point.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It sends IGMP queries.
E. It sends PIM asserts on the interfaces of the outgoing interface list.
In PIM ASM and SSM modes, the software chooses a designated router (DR) from the routers on each network segment. The DR is responsible for forwarding multicast data for specified groups and sources on that segment. In ASM mode, the DR is responsible for unicasting PIM register packets to the RP. When a DR receives an IGMP membership report from a directly connected receiver, the shortest path is formed to the RP, which may or may not go through the DR. The result is a shared tree that connects all sources transmitting on the same multicast group to all receivers of that group. In SSM mode, the DR triggers (*, G) or (S, G) PIM join messages toward the RP or the source. The path from the receiver to the source is determined hop by hop. The source must be known to the receiver or the DR.
Q454. Which three condition types can be monitored by crypto conditional debug? (Choose three.)
A. Peer hostname
D. Flow ID
F. Connection ID
Supported Condition Types
The new crypto conditional debug CLIs--debug crypto condition, debug crypto condition unmatched, and show crypto debug-condition--allow you to specify conditions (filter values) in which to generate and display debug messages related only to the specified conditions. The table below lists the supported condition types.
Table 1 Supported Condition Types for Crypto Debug CLI
Condition Type (Keyword)
An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the connection ID to interface with the crypto engine.
An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the flow-ID to interface with the crypto engine.
The name string of a virtual private network (VPN) routing and forwarding (VRF) instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its front-door VRF (FVRF).
The name string of a VRF instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its inside VRF (IVRF).
A Unity group-name string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this group name as its identity.
A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this string as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Xauth with this FQDN string.
A single IP address. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation is related to the IP address of this peer.
A subnet and a subnet mask that specify a range of peer IP addresses. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the IP address of the current IPSec peer falls into the specified subnet range.
A username string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this username as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Extended Authentication (Xauth) with this username.
A 32-bit unsigned integer. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the SPI.
Q455. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the device routing table is true?
A. Only networks 10.10.10.0/24 and smaller from host 192.168.168.1 are in the routing table.
B. Only networks 10.10.10.0/24 and larger from host 192.168.168.1 are in the routing table.
C. Only network 10.10.10.0/24 from host 192.168.168.1 is in the routing table.
D. Networks 10.10.10.0/24 and smaller from any host are in the routing table.
When you add the keywords “GE” and “LE” to the prefix-list, the “len” value changes its meaning. When using GE and LE, the len value specifies how many bits of the prefix you are checking, starting with the most significant bit. ip prefix-list LIST permit 18.104.22.168/24 le 32
This means: Check the first 24 bits of the prefix 22.214.171.124 The subnet mask must be less than or equal to 32
Updated 400-101 testing engine:
Q456. Which two options are disadvantages of a commingled dual-tier WAN rate-based Ethernet circuit? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the maintenance of separate chassis.
B. It has limited scalability.
C. It requires additional CPU resources at the subscriber end.
D. It is more difficult to secure.
E. It can increase the likelihood of packet drops.
Q457. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.)
A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event.
B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.
C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.
D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy.
E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements.
Q458. Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.
Q459. Which statement about WAN Ethernet Services is true?
A. Rate-limiting can be configured per EVC.
B. Point-to-point processing and encapsulation are performed on the customer network.
C. Ethernet multipoint services function as a multipoint-to-multipoint VLAN-based connection.
D. UNIs can perform service multiplexing and all-in-one bundling.
The MEF has defined a set of bandwidth profiles that can be applied at the UNI or to an EVC. A bandwidth profile is a limit on the rate at which Ethernet frames can traverse the UNI or the EVC.
Q460. An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
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