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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Examples of ccie 400 101 dumps
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Q61. In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection.
B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance characteristics of the current WAN exit link.
D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine an alternate exit link.
PfR uses Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) to enable active monitoring. IP SLAs support is enabled by default. IP SLAs support allows PfR to be configured to send active probes to target IP addresses to measure the jitter and delay, determining if a prefix is out-of-policy and if the best exit is selected. The border router collects these performance statistics from the active probe and transmits this information to the master controller.
Fast Failover Monitoring
Fast failover monitoring enables passive and active monitoring and sets the active probes to continuously monitor all the exits (probe-all). Fast failover monitoring can be used with all types of active probes: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo, jitter, TCP connection, and UDP echo.
Q62. Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal?
A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector
B. Resource Event Detector
C. OIR Event Detector
D. CLI Event Detector
Q63. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the multiprotocol BGP feature on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Q64. Which two statements about RSTP and MSTP BPDUs are true? (Choose two.)
A. MSTP switches can detect boundary ports when they receive RSTP version 2 BPDUs.
B. MSTP switches can detect boundary ports when they receive RSTP version 1 BPDUs.
C. RSTP switches can process MSTP version 3 BPDUs.
D. When all boundary switches are running RSTP, MST sends only version 0 configuration BPDUs.
A switch running both MSTP and RSTP supports a built-in protocol migration mechanism that enables it to interoperate with legacy 802.1D switches. If this switch receives a legacy 802.1D configuration BPDU (a BPDU with the protocol version set to 0), it sends only 802.1D BPDUs on that port. An MST switch can also detect that a port is at the boundary of a region when it receives a legacy BPDU, an MST BPDU (version 3) associated with a different region, or an RST BPDU (version 2).
Q65. DRAG DROP
Q66. What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for TCP flows?
A. only delay
B. delay and packet loss
C. delay and reachability
D. delay, packet loss, and throughput
E. delay, packet loss, throughput, and reachability
Passive monitoring metrics include the following:
. Delay: Cisco PfR measures the average delay of TCP flows for a given prefix or traffic class. Delay is the measurement of the round-trip response time (RTT) between the transmission of a TCP synchronization message and receipt of the TCP acknowledgement.
. Packet loss: Cisco PfR measures packet loss by tracking TCP sequence numbers for each TCP flow; it tracks the highest TCP sequence number. If it receives a subsequent packet with a lower sequence number, PfR increments the packet-loss counter. Packet
loss is measured in packets per million.
. Reachability: Cisco PfR measures reachability by tracking TCP synchronization messages that have been sent repeatedly without receiving a TCP acknowledgement.
. Throughput: Cisco PfR measures TCP throughput by measuring the total number of bytes and packets for each interesting traffic class or prefix for a given interval of time.
Q67. Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SNMP agent is enabled.
B. The SNMP trap receiver is configured.
C. All SNMP notification types are sent.
D. SNMPv1 is the default version.
E. SNMPv3 is the default version.
Default SNMP Configuration
Enabled SNMP community strings
SNMP trap receiver
If no version keyword is present, the default is version 1.
If no keyword is entered, the default is the noauth (noAuthNoPriv) security level.
SNMP notification type
If no type is specified, all notifications are sent.
Q68. Which two issues is TCP Sequence Number Randomization designed to prevent? (Choose two.)
A. DDOS attacks
B. OS fingerprinting
C. man-in-the-middle attacks
D. ARP poisoning
E. Smurf attack
Q69. Which two statements about OSPF route types are true? (Choose two.)
A. The cost of an external type 2 route is the sum of the external and internal costs.
B. The cost of an external type 2 route is the same as the external cost.
C. Intra-area routes originate outside of their area.
D. Inter-area routes originate inside their area.
E. The cost of an external type 1 route is the same as the internal cost.
F. For routes to the same destination, external type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes.
External routes fall under two categories, external type 1 and external type 2. The difference between the two is in the way the cost (metric) of the route is being calculated. The cost of a type 2 route is always the external cost, irrespective of the interior cost to reach that route. A type 1 cost is the addition of the external cost and the internal cost used to reach that route. A type 1 route is always preferred over a type 2 route for the same destination.
Q70. What are three required commands when you enable source-specific multicast for addresses in the range 22.214.171.124/8? (Choose three.)
A. ip multicast-routing
B. ip igmp version 3
C. ip pim ssm-range 126.96.36.199/8
D. ip igmp version 2
E. ip pim ssm-range default
F. set routing-options multicast ssm-groups 188.8.131.52/8
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