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Q291. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop each PHB on the left to the functionality it performs on the right. 

Answer: 


Q292. Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.) 

A. Option Class 

B. GET 

C. Copied 

D. PUSH 

E. Option Number 

F. TTL 

Answer: A,C,E 

Explanation: 

Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data. 

Reference: http://www.tcpipguide.com/free/t_IPDatagramOptionsandOptionFormat.htm 


Q293. Which statement describes the native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk? 

A. It is the VLAN ID that is assigned to untagged packets. 

B. It is the VLAN with highest priority. 

C. It is the default VLAN for a trunk. 

D. There is no native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

ISL has no native VLAN concept because it places the entire Ethernet frame in the payload of an ISL frame. Native VLANs is an 802.1Q specific concept 


Q294. Which field is specific to the OPSFv3 packet header, as opposed to the OSPFv2 packet header? 

A. checksum 

B. router ID 

C. AuType 

D. instance ID 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In OSPFv3, Instance ID is a new field that is used to have multiple OSPF process’ instance per link. By default it is 0 and for any additional instance it is increased, instance ID has local link significance only. OSPFv3 routers will only become neighbors if the instanceIDs match. It is thus possible to have multiple routers on a broadcast domain and all run Ospfv3 but not all of them becoming neighbors. 

Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/97766/comparing-ospfv3-ospfv2-routing-protocol 


Q295. You are tasked with configuring a router on an OSPF domain to import routes from an EIGRP domain and summarize the routes to 192.168.64.0. 

Which statement configures the summarized route and provides equal-path route redundancy? 

A. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.192.0 cost 100 

B. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.63.0 cost 100 

C. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.64.0 cost 100 

D. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.192.0 multi-path 

Answer:

Explanation: 

area range 

To consolidate and summarize routes at an area boundary, use the area range command in router configuration mode. To disable this function, use the no form of this command. 

Syntax Description 

area-id 

Identifier of the area about which routes are to be summarized. It can be specified as either a decimal value or as an IP address. 

ip-address 

IP address. 

mask 

IP address mask. 

advertise 

(Optional) Sets the address range status to advertise and generates a Type 3 summary link-state advertisement (LSA). 

not-advertise 

(Optional) Sets the address range status to DoNotAdvertise. The Type 3 summary LSA is suppressed, and the component networks remain hidden from other networks. 

cost cost 

(Optional) Metric or cost for this summary route, which is used during OSPF SPF calculation to determine the shortest paths to the destination. The value can be 0 to 16777215. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/fiprrp_r/1rfospf. html#wp1017596 


Q296. Which option is a core event publisher for EEM? 

A. Timer 

B. Policy Director 

C. Applet 

D. Script 

Answer:

Explanation: 

EEM is a flexible, policy-driven framework that supports in-box monitoring of different components of the system with the help of software agents known as event detectors. The figure below shows the relationship between the EEM server, core event publishers (event detectors), and the event subscribers (policies). Basically, event publishers screen events and publish them when there is a match on an event specification that is provided by the event subscriber. Event detectors notify the EEM server when an event of interest occurs. The EEM policies that are configured using the Cisco command-line interface (CLI) then implement recovery on the basis of the current state of the system and the actions specified in the policy for the given event. EEM offers the ability to monitor events and take informational or corrective action when the monitored events occur or when a threshold is reached. An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script. An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. A script is a form of policy that is written in Tool Command Language (Tcl). 

Figure 1. Embedded Event Manager Core Event Detectors 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/15-mt/eem-15-mt-book/eem-overview.html 


Q297. You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb. 

B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor. 

C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor. 

D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb. 

E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb. 

Answer: A,C 

Explanation: 

1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data. 


Q298. Which two statements about IS-IS wide metrics are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The wide metric is a 24-bit field. 

B. The maximum link metric is 16777215. 

C. R3 and R4 periodically advertise PNSP messages to synchronize the IS-IS database. 

D. IS-IS devices that are enabled with wide metrics can become neighbors with a device that uses standard metrics. 

E. The maximum link metric is 4261412864. 

F. The maximum path metric is 16777215. 

Answer: A,B 


Q299. Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header? 

A. It identifies the signaling protocol. 

B. It identifies the codec. 

C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP. 

D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below: 

Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm 


Q300. Refer to the exhibit. 

All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated. The numbers shown are STP link metrics. Which two ports are in blocking state after STP converges? (Choose two.) 

A. the port on switch SWD that connects to switch SWE 

B. the port on switch SWF that connects to switch SWG 

C. the port on switch SWD that connects to switch SWC 

D. the port on switch SWB that connects to switch SWD 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

This is a scenario that wants you to demonstrate understanding of the Root switch and Root port election process. So, it’s best to start with where the root switch will be and work down from there. It’s setup nicely because the lowest MAC address switch starts at the top and then the lower priority/higher mac addresses move down the architecture. SWA wins the root election and of course all ports in SWA are forwarding. SWB introduces the possibility for a switching loop so it’s important to understand which ports will be put into the blocking state. Since SWD is a higher MAC address it will end up with a blocked port connected to SWB to prevent a loop: and this is one of the correct answers. To prevent the possibility of another potential switching loop, SWD again ends up with the higher MAC address so blocking the link between D and C prevents a B/C/D switching loop.