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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Facts about cisco 400 101
Exam Code: 400 101 ccie (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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Q351. Which circumstance can cause TCP starvation and UDP dominance to occur?
A. Too few queues are available.
B. UDP is comprised of smaller packets than TCP.
C. Retransmitted TCP packets are on the network.
D. UDP and TCP data are assigned to the same service-provider class.
Q352. Which IPv6 tunneling type establishes a permanent link between IPv6 domains over IPv4?
A. IPv4-compatible tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. 6to4 tunneling
D. manual tunneling
A manually configured tunnel is equivalent to a permanent link between two IPv6 domains over an IPv4 backbone. The primary use is for stable connections that require regular secure communication between two edge routers or between an end system and an edge router, or for connection to remote IPv6 networks.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/i p6-tunnel.html
Q353. Which two statements about port ACLs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Port ACLs are supported on physical interfaces and are configured on a Layer 2 interface on a switch.
B. Port ACLs support both outbound and inbound traffic filtering.
C. When it is applied to trunk ports, the port ACL filters only native VLAN traffic.
D. When it is applied to a port with voice VLAN, the port ACL filters both voice and data VLAN traffic.
PACLs filter incoming traffic on Layer 2 interfaces, using Layer 3 information, Layer 4 header information, or non-IP Layer 2 information The port ACL (PACL) feature provides the ability to perform access control on specific Layer 2 ports. A Layer 2 port is a physical LAN or trunk port that belongs to a VLAN. Port ACLs perform access control on all traffic entering the specified Layer 2 port, including voice and data VLANs that may be configured on the port. Port ACLs are applied only on the ingress traffic.
Q354. Which two statements are true about a 6to4 tunnel connecting two IPv6 islands over the IPv4 Internet? (Choose two.)
A. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 51.
B. It works by appending the private IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
C. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 41.
D. It works by appending the public IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
6to4 embeds an IPv6 packet in the payload portion of an IPv4 packet with protocol type 41. To send an IPv6 packet over an IPv4 network to a 6to4 destination address, an IPv4
header with protocol type 41 is prepended to the IPv6 packet. The IPv4 destination address for the prepended packet header is derived from the IPv6 destination address of the inner packet (which is in the format of a 6to4 address), by extracting the 32 bits immediately following the IPv6 destination address's 2002::/16 prefix. The IPv4 source address in the prepended packet header is the IPv4 address of the host or router which is sending the packet over IPv4. The resulting IPv4 packet is then routed to its IPv4 destination address just like any other IPv4 packet.
Q355. Which three options are results of the command no mpls ip propagate-ttl? (Choose three.)
A. It prevents the TTL from being copied from the IP header to the MPLS header.
B. It prevents the MPLS hops from being visible to a CE router when you perform a traceroute.
C. A fixed TTL value of 255 is used for the first label of the IP packet.
D. It prevents the TTL from being copied from the MPLS header back into the IP header.
E. MPLS hops remain visible on a CE router when you perform a traceroute.
F. A fixed TTL value of 1 is used for the first label of the IP packet.
Q356. Refer to the exhibit.
A PE router is configured with a policy map that contains the policer shown. The policy map is configured in the inbound direction of an interface facing a CE router. If the PE router
receives 12Mb/s of traffic with the CoS value set to 7 on a 100-Mb/s interface from the CE router, what value of MPLS EXP is set when this traffic goes through the policer shown?
Here, the policer is set where the conforming traffic is set to 10 percent of the 100 Mbps interface, so anything more than 10 Mbps will be placed into the exceeding traffic class, the traffic EXP value will be changed from 7 to 6 per the configuration.
Q357. Which two fields reside in the initial CHAP challenge packet? (Choose two.)
A. the authentication name of the challenger
B. a random hash value generated by the device
C. the hashed packet type ID
D. the packet type ID in clear text
When a caller A dials in to an access server B, The Access server sends across the link an initial Type 1 authentication packet called a Challenge. This Challenge packet contains a randomly generated number, an ID sequence number to identify the challenge (sent in clear text) and the authentication name of the challenger.
Q358. Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true?
A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID.
B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects the route into the AS.
C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator ID to its own router ID.
D. The originator ID is set to match the cluster ID.
An RR reflecting the route received from a RR-Client adds:
. Originator ID- a 4-byte BGP attribute that is created by the RR. This attribute carries the Router ID of the originator of the route in the local AS. If the update comes back to the originator, it ignores the update.
. Cluster List- A Cluster List is a list of Cluster IDs that an update has traversed. When a route reflector sends a route received from a client to a non-client, it appends the local Cluster ID. If a route reflector receives a route whose Cluster List contains the local Cluster ID, it ignores the update.
Q359. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about this route table are true? (Choose two.)
A. The BGP routes are internal.
B. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag retain the same metric as they leave the router.
C. The OSPF routes with the IA flag have their administrative distances incremented as they leave the router.
D. The BGP routes are external.
E. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag have their metrics incremented as they leave the router.
IBGP routes have an Administrative distance of 200, while EBGP have an AD of 20. Here we see that the BGP routes have an AD value of 200.
With OSPF, external routes fall under two categories, external type 1 and external type 2.
The difference between the two is in the way the cost (metric) of the route is being calculated. The cost of a type 2 route is always the external cost, irrespective of the interior cost to reach that route. A type 1 cost is the addition of the external cost and the internal cost used to reach that route. The metric for E2 routes do not change when advertising to other routers.
Q360. Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two.)
A. The route with the highest local preference is preferred.
B. The weight attribute is advertised to peers.
C. The route with the lowest MED is preferred.
D. A route that originates from iBGP peers is preferred.
E. A route that originates from a router with a higher BGP router ID is preferred.
F. The lowest weight advertised is preferred.
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