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New Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 2 - Question 11)
Q2. In Which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root part, and the designated ports elected?
Q3. when is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to sent routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface
B. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network
C. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface
D. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received
Q4. Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. VLAN revision number
B. longest uptime
C. highest MAC address
D. user-selected priority
E. IOS version number
F. lowest MAC address
Q5. Which two statements about debugging on Cisco routers are true? (Choose two)
A. Using console logging can reduce the performance impact of the debug command
B. The debug command can be run in privileged exec mode only
C. By default, the router logs debug command output to vty lines
D. The terminal monitor command copies debug output to the terminal
E. The debug ip packet command can debug IP traffic that is fast-switched on the router
F. The debug command can be run in user exec mode
Q6. R1#showip ospfinterface FastEthernet0/0.12
R2#showip ospfinterface FastEthernet0/0.12
...Network Type BROADCAST...
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on R1 and R2 as shown. which action can you take to allow a
neighbor relationship to be established.
A. On R1, change the process ID to 1
B. On R1, set the network type of the FastEthernet0/0.12 interface to broadcast
C. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using interface addresses
D. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using router IDs
Q7. What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow?(3)
A. Layer 3 protocol type
B. Type of service
C. Source MAC address
D. Canonical Format identifier
E. Input logical interface
F. Cyclic Redundancy Check
Q8. What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows?
Q9. In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuration an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF but then configuration a nonidentical RD across multiple PE
A. The routes are not sent to any remote PE with different RD.
B. The routes are directly managed by the control plane, but there are instances where routes take up twice as much memory.
C. The routes are rejected by the remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
D. The routes propagate to the remote PE, but the PE never installs the, in its forwarding table.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. interface ethernet 0/0
ip policy route-map PBR route-map PBR
match ip address 144
set ip next-hop 172.16.12.5
set ip next-hop recursive 192.168.3.2
Which statement correctly describes how a router with this configuration treats packets that matches access-list 144 if it does not know a path to 172.16.12.5, and does not know a path 192.168.3.2?
A. It send an ICMP source quench message.
B. It drops the packet immediately.
C. It routes the packet into a loop and drops it when the TTL reaches zero.
D. It routes the packet based on the packet's destination using the routing table.
Q11. Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?
A. They determine whether a destination is reachable
B. They are transmitted unreliably
C. They are transmitted via broadcast
D. They are sent in response to queries
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