Get actual & Latest CAS-002 Questions, Plus Accurate Answers
Exam Code: CAS-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
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Testking offers free demo for CAS-002 exam. "CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)", also known as CAS-002 exam, is a CompTIA Certification. This set of posts, Passing the CompTIA CAS-002 exam, will help you answer those questions. The CAS-002 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real CompTIA CAS-002 exams and revised by experts!
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New CompTIA CAS-002 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 9 - Question 18)
Q1. A hosting company provides inexpensive guest virtual machines to low-margin customers. Customers manage their own guest virtual machines. Some customers want basic guarantees of logical separation from other customers and it has been indicated that some customers would like to have configuration control of this separation; whereas others want this provided as a value-added service by the hosting company. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
A. The hosting company should install a hypervisor-based firewall and allow customers to manage this on an as-needed basis.
B. The hosting company should manage the hypervisor-based firewall; while allowing customers to configure their own host-based firewall.
C. Customers should purchase physical firewalls to protect their guest hosts and have the hosting company manage these if requested.
D. The hosting company should install a host-based firewall on customer guest hosts and offer to administer host firewalls for customers if requested.
Q2. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a large organization has been reviewing some security-related incidents at the organization and comparing them to current industry trends. The desktop security engineer feels that the use of USB storage devices on office computers has contributed to the frequency of security incidents. The CISO knows the acceptable use policy prohibits the use of USB storage devices. Every user receives a popup warning about this policy upon login. The SIEM system produces a report of USB violations on a monthly basis; yet violations continue to occur. Which of the following preventative controls would MOST effectively mitigate the logical risks associated with the use of USB storage devices?
A. Revise the corporate policy to include possible termination as a result of violations
B. Increase the frequency and distribution of the USB violations report
C. Deploy PKI to add non-repudiation to login sessions so offenders cannot deny the offense
D. Implement group policy objects
Q3. In order to reduce costs and improve employee satisfaction, a large corporation is creating a BYOD policy. It will allow access to email and remote connections to the corporate enterprise from personal devices; provided they are on an approved device list. Which of the following security measures would be MOST effective in securing the enterprise under the new policy? (Select TWO).
A. Provide free email software for personal devices.
B. Encrypt data in transit for remote access.
C. Require smart card authentication for all devices
D. Implement NAC to limit insecure devices access.
E. Enable time of day restrictions for personal devices.
Q4. A new company requirement mandates the implementation of multi-factor authentication to access network resources. The security administrator was asked to research and implement the most cost-effective solution that would allow for the authentication of both hardware and users. The company wants to leverage the PKI infrastructure which is already well established. Which of the following solutions should the security administrator implement?
A. Issue individual private/public key pairs to each user, install the private key on the central authentication system, and protect the private key with the useru2019s credentials. Require each user to install the public key on their computer.
B. Deploy USB fingerprint scanners on all desktops, and enable the fingerprint scanner on all laptops. Require all network users to register their fingerprint using the reader and store the information in the central authentication system.
C. Issue each user one hardware token. Configure the token serial number in the user properties of the central authentication system for each user and require token authentication with PIN for network logon.
D. Issue individual private/public key pairs to each user, install the public key on the central authentication system, and require each user to install the private key on their computer and protect it with a password.
Q5. An IT administrator wants to restrict DNS zone transfers between two geographically dispersed, external company DNS name servers, and has decided to use TSIG. Which of the following are critical when using TSIG? (Select TWO).
A. Periodic key changes once the initial keys are established between the DNS name servers.
B. Secure exchange of the key values between the two DNS name servers.
C. A secure NTP source used by both DNS name servers to avoid message rejection.
D. DNS configuration files on both DNS name servers must be identically encrypted.
E. AES encryption with a SHA1 hash must be used to encrypt the configuration files on both DNS name servers.
Q6. The VoIP administrator starts receiving reports that users are having problems placing phone calls. The VoIP administrator cannot determine the issue, and asks the security administrator for help. The security administrator reviews the switch interfaces and does not see an excessive amount of network traffic on the voice network. Using a protocol analyzer, the security administrator does see an excessive number of SIP INVITE packets destined for the SIP proxy. Based on the information given, which of the following types of attacks is underway and how can it be remediated?
A. Man in the middle attack; install an IPS in front of SIP proxy.
B. Man in the middle attack; use 802.1x to secure voice VLAN.
C. Denial of Service; switch to more secure H.323 protocol.
D. Denial of Service; use rate limiting to limit traffic.
Q7. An organization has had six security incidents over the past year against their main web application. Each time the organization was able to determine the cause of the incident and restore operations within a few hours to a few days. Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive method for reducing the time to recover?
A. Create security metrics that provide information on response times and requirements to determine the best place to focus time and money.
B. Conduct a loss analysis to determine which systems to focus time and money towards increasing security.
C. Implement a knowledge management process accessible to the help desk and finance departments to estimate cost and prioritize remediation.
D. Develop an incident response team, require training for incident remediation, and provide incident reporting and tracking metrics.
Q8. A large corporation which is heavily reliant on IT platforms and systems is in financial difficulty and needs to drastically reduce costs in the short term to survive. The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has mandated that all IT and architectural functions will be outsourced and a mixture of providers will be selected. One provider will manage the desktops for five years, another provider will manage the network for ten years, another provider will be responsible for security for four years, and an offshore provider will perform day to day business processing functions for two years. At the end of each contract the incumbent may be renewed or a new provider may be selected. Which of the following are the MOST likely risk implications of the CFOu2019s business decision?
A. Strategic architecture will be adversely impacted through the segregation of duties between the providers. Vendor management costs will remain unchanged. The risk position of the organization will decline as specialists now maintain the environment. The implementation of security controls and security updates will improve. Internal knowledge of IT systems will improve as providers maintain system documentation.
B. Strategic architecture will improve as more time can be dedicated to strategy. System stability will improve as providers use specialists and tested processes to maintain systems. Vendor management costs will increase and the organizationu2019s flexibility to react to new market conditions will be reduced slightly. Internal knowledge of IT systems will improve as providers maintain system documentation. The risk position of the organization will remain unchanged.
C. Strategic architecture will not be impacted in the short term, but will be adversely impacted in the long term through the segregation of duties between the providers. Vendor management costs will stay the same and the organizationu2019s flexibility to react to new market conditions will be improved through best of breed technology implementations. Internal knowledge of IT systems will decline over time. The implementation of security controls and security updates will not change.
D. Strategic architecture will be adversely impacted through the segregation of duties between the providers. Vendor management costs will increase and the organizationu2019s flexibility to react to new market conditions will be reduced. Internal knowledge of IT systems will decline and decrease future platform development. The implementation of security controls and security updates will take longer as responsibility crosses multiple boundaries.
Q9. A company receives an e-discovery request for the Chief Information Officeru2019s (CIOu2019s) email data. The storage administrator reports that the data retention policy relevant to their industry only requires one year of email data. However the storage administrator also reports that there are three years of email data on the server and five years of email data on backup tapes. How many years of data MUST the company legally provide?
Q10. In a SPML exchange, which of the following BEST describes the three primary roles?
A. The Provisioning Service Target (PST) entity makes the provisioning request, the Provisioning Service Provider (PSP) responds to the PST requests, and the Provisioning Service Target (PST) performs the provisioning.
B. The Provisioning Service Provider (PSP) entity makes the provisioning request, the Provisioning Service Target (PST) responds to the PSP requests, and the Provisioning Service Provider (PSP) performs the provisioning.
C. The Request Authority (RA) entity makes the provisioning request, the Provisioning Service Target (PST) responds to the RA requests, and the Provisioning Service Provider (PSP) performs the provisioning.
D. The Request Authority (RA) entity makes the provisioning request, the Provisioning Service Provider (PSP) responds to the RA requests, and the Provisioning Service Target (PST) performs the provisioning.
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